The Bible says to submit to authority because it is established by God. Doesn’t this mean that the American Revolution was wrong? Also, what about governments that are actively committing genocide? Should the Jews in the Warsaw Ghetto not have resisted? Doesn’t this mean that Stalin, Hitler, Mao, Pol Pot, etc. were all put in place by God and that they should have been obeyed even they mercilessly massacred their own people? I am confused.

Could I ask a follow up on the question about Joel 2 and Ezekiel concerning Armageddon? Could Ezekiel 39:9-13 simply be talking about the clean up after Armageddon? Burning the weapons would seem appropriate seeing how they wouldn’t be needed anymore? I know that biblical scholarship see’s these two events as separate. However, does the old testament speak of Armageddon if Ezekiel is not it? And vice-versa, does the NT speak of Ezekiel’s battle? We accept that during the four gospel accounts of Christ’s life, each gospel of Jesus can sometimes provide very unique information, yet we know them as the same event. Could this not be the case with Revelation and Ezekiel?

If the Holy Spirit is sealed within us and we’re raptured before Daniel’s 70th Week begins, how are people saved during the seven year tribulation period?

I recently discovered your site and have been reading more each day. I have a question regarding the rapture. I’ve always thought that it was impossible to know the time of the rapture, beyond knowing the season. Primarily because of the doctrine of imminency and also the scripture about not knowing the day or hour. However, it was pointed out to me that, in the Bible, several of the rapture ‘pictures’ knew the actual timing,…Noah was told the day the rains would come, Lot was told when the cities would be destroyed, the men in Elisha’s village also knew the date of his departure and then there is Amos 3:7 which states that the Lord does nothing w/out telling his people. So, is it possible to know or not?

I have been listening to your MP-3 study on Mark and have been greatly blessed by it. But I have been thinking about some things you said in Part 7 about the Rapture not being a “timing thing” but rather a “numbers thing”. You said that Paul revealed the mystery that the rapture would not happen until the “full number of Gentiles has come in”, and you give the nautical reference about how a ship could not sail without the “full number” of crew. I understand this and agree with you but have this question.

A ship could not sail without the full number of crew because there wouldn’t be enough men to do the work needed on the ship. In your opinion is that what God is saying regarding the rapture as well? Could the “full number” of Gentiles be based on some task required in heaven or the new earth or something like that? I say this because it seems hard to fathom that the “full number” would refer to a point when the gospel was preached to every person on earth. The earth’s population is continually turning over (if you will) so how would/could that point be reached? But likewise it is hard for me to fathom that a certain number would be reached and then “the ship would sail” so to speak and some would be left behind. True, they could still be saved during the tribulation but just without the benefit of the holy spirit or grace that the Church enjoys. I am interested in your thoughts regarding this.

I have been taught that the “sons of God” mentioned in Genesis 6 were fallen angels. These fallen angels mated with human women and produced children. If this is true, why did they not continue after The Flood? Also. if they can reproduce, why then can’t faithful angels in Heaven? One more thing, I’ve been told there is no sex in Heaven. If demons can have sex, why can’t humans in Heaven?

I am a believer in the pre-trib rapture, however I currently hear the rumblings of false birth pains in the circles of end-time discussions. Does this have legs in your mind and if so how far does it set us back with regards to the rapture? I read a posting where an individual believes that we are a decade or so away from any prophecy that alters our current state of affairs concerning the middle east. I find it hard to believe that it would take that long for events to arise in a way that shifts the balance of nations. Are we experiencing false birth pains at this very moment?

In reading your articles on The Antichrist and Mr. Obama, a question came to mind. Does the antichrist know he is the antichrist? I can see someone like Obama, jumping into the world scene as some kind of savoir of the world, starting off with good intentions, but ending up letting the power and adoration get to him, distorting his thinking and passions. At that time, he would be a prime target for Satan to come and possess him to do the unthinkable. So my question, before Satan takes over, does the antichrist know what’s coming?

As I read Joel 2:1-29, it seems to me that the passage; describes the battle that starts the Day of the LORD; the turning of Israel back to the Lord;the Lord’s deliverance and the immediate after effects, such as the outpouring of his spirit. The rest of Joel 2:30-3:21 deal with part of the Tribulation period and the battle of Armageddon.

The question I am trying to get to is from here. I believe Ezek.38,39 and Joel 2 are descriptions of the same battle. Look at the similarities between the two and Ezek.39:8 where the Lord God says “this is the day whereof I have spoken” in other previous scriptures, which is usually the day of the Lord., but look at Joel 2:16 too. All the first parts of the verse are plural (i.e. people, congregation ,elders,children and babies) which is everyone except the soldiers trying to defend Israel. Then there is a colon (:) in the verse (KJV). By definition a colon is used to mark a major division in a sentence, to indicate that what follows is an elaboration, summation or implication of what precedes it. The next part of the verse is singular (i.e. one bridegroom and one bride.) Could this part of the verse be a reference to or implication of the Rapture of the Church?

To whom is Jesus speaking in the following passage? WHO will be handed over, etc.?

“Then you will be handed over to be persecuted and put to death, and you will be hated by all nations because of me. At that time many will turn away from the faith and will betray and hate each other, and many false prophets will appear and deceive many people. Because of the increase of wickedness, the love of most will grow cold, but he who stands firm to the end will be saved. And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come. (Matt. 24:6-14)

Many thanks for the clarification.