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Is it possible that the trumpet judgements and the bowl judgments be defining the same events from a different perspective? It would seem that we are seeing God’s view and the unbelievers view of the same action for reinforcement.

Did all denominations come from the Catholic faith? I have been asked this question and I did not have an answer.

You recently said “At the end of the Millennium the unbelieving dead from all ages will be gathered for their final judgment. Anyone whose name is not found in the Book of Life will be thrown into the Lake of Fire for eternal punishment.” Where are the spirits of these people now?? Are they in limbo, in eternal punishment or simply not existent at this time?

I have been reading a lot on the subjects of singularity and transhumanism. I believe that secular humanist scientists are bent on achieving the ancient lie of men becoming gods and are feverishly working on the last phase of man’s evolution behind the scenes by gene manipulation and integrating man with machine. But many of the movies I’ve watched on the the mark of the beast show people reluctantly receiving the mark so they can live and eat. Do you think it’s a possibility that people will be excited to receive the mark due to the possibility of becoming a god?

My daughter floored me yesterday. She is a born again Christian but read on facebook where an Islamic man claimed that after his research the Jesus of the Bible and the Jesus spoken of in the Koran are one and the same. I told her this is not true and that Allah and God are not one and the same either. I don’t want her to go down the Chrislam road as many seem to be doing these days. What proof can I give her to help her see this? I don’t want to buy a copy of the Koran.

I have been studying the Book of Revelation lately and I believe it says somewhere in there I can’t find now about the full number coming in. It says when the full number of Gentiles are killed in Gods name is when the end will begin. Is this true? Are we waiting on a full number of people to die in Gods name for the rapture to happen?

I sort of have an ongoing debate with a co-worker regarding the wives of Seth and Cain (Adam and Eve’s sons). My co-worker asked me where did they come from as there is no clear explanation in Genesis and they just sort of appear. I say that they have to be descendants of Adam and Eve who are the mother and father of mankind. My co-worker feels that this would be incest and can’t be. Can you clarify this for us?

I am interested in reading the books of the apocrypha. Am I correct in the basic understanding that they are NOT divinely inspired, but interesting historical records? I’m confused about what (if any of them) are a good read. For instance, I’ve heard that the Gospel of Judas (while not typically associated with the other apocrypha books) is sacreligious. Are all of them? What about ones quoted in the Scriptures (the Book of Enoch)? What would you recommend?

I firmly believe in the pre-trib rapture and have studied much of your teaching on the subject. I have one area that I am still uncertain about. It is about the resurrection of tribulation saints. In your article “Defending the Pre-Trib Rapture (Again)” you explain that Rev. 20:4-9 shows that tribulation saints are resurrected at the same time as Old-Testament saints, at the end of the tribulation and before the millennium. I can see you are correct from that passage, but what proof do we have that these saints are not simply the church age saints who died in the tribulation?

That is what post-tribbers insist. I often hear the argument that a pre-trib rapture can’t be right since it makes it necessary for there to be three resurrections. They claim there would have to be one at the pre-trib rapture, a second for O.T. and trib-saints at the end of the tribulation, and a third for those who died outside of Christ at the end of the millennium. It does seem that way from the Rev. 20 passage, and verse 5 does refer to the tribulation saint’s resurrection as “the first resurrection”.

Would you please clarify this verse for us?

“Never again will there be in it an infant who lives but a few days, or an old man who does not live out his years; he who dies at a hundred will be thought a mere youth; he who fails to reach a hundred will be considered accursed. Isaiah 65:20.

It sounds like there will be death in the millennium. Am I understanding that verse correctly? I am also trying to understand in the millennium – Rev 22:2 – that the leaves will heal the nations – why do the nations need to be healed?