Recently I was reading several of the letters on your site and where you said that only about 10% of the people in Church today are really saved. I am curious as to how you arrived at that percentage. I have always felt that some of the people who were born and raised in the church didn’t get it. I think I ‘ve had a couple of preachers along the way who didn’t get either, but 90% seems high.
Where are those who died before Christ? Such as David, Moses, or any Jew or gentile ( assuming that they were saved). Are their spirits with the Lord? And will they be reunited with bodies at The Rapture like The Church dead will be? I read that The Rapture is for The Church solely. Yet from my own studies I can’t find out . All I am clear on is that The Church , both the living and the dead, will be raised and caught up.
I have enjoyed your article on the Lord’s Prayer. And though we, as believers, may call him “Father”, that is not His name. I first began this email by intending to cite scriptures where it mentions His wanting us to know Him by His name, but there were just too many of them. His name is YHWH. Some pronounce it “Jehovah”, but since there was no letter “J” in the Hebrew language, we call Him Yahweh. (The same is true of “Jesus” whose real Hebrew name was/is “Yeshua”.) Of course, this name was deleted from almost all scriptures and substituted with “LORD” because it was considered too sacred to pronounce. But, He wants the world to know His name and use it. So, when we pray “hallowed be thy name,” we are speaking of His name YAHWEH.
Recently I came across an atheist website that argued against God by saying an omnipotent God is impossible. Their line of reasoning went something like this:
If God were truly omnipotent in an absolute and unlimited sense, then God could be capable of both existing and not existing at the same time, meaning that every form of theism and every form of atheism would be equally justified at all times simultaneously. Such a God could be capable of informing humans of certain requirements for attaining heaven and avoiding hell but actually holding to entirely different requirements without ever actually lying.
I have seen numerous explanations by theologians to this argument. However, I have come to the following conclusion, theologians who say it is impossible for God to do anything that it is logically impossible to do are wrong because quite frankly God transcends logic. The only reason we know anything at all about the loving creator is because he is merciful enough to reveal himself to us through his word. What is your take on this argument by atheists and by my answer?
In Matthew 26:29, Jesus said “But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s Kingdom.” Can you explain “this cup” and when and where will he drink it new? What or where is His Father’s Kingdom? When or what is the Kingdom of God?
After we believe in Jesus Christ, we know that we are forgiven of our sins. Yet we sin to Lord all the time. We know God does not like us to have a sinful lifestyle and will banish those sinful people to hell. So how do we know if we have a sinful lifestyle if we sin everyday? If we sin everyday does that mean we lead a sinful lifestyle? We all know that we will be forgiven if we ask, but will God be angry because we just can’t stop sinning? And how do we identify if we lead those sinful lives or not? Is there anyway we can know? We are like living in such a sinful world, is there anyway to stop that.
I am very puzzled and troubled by 1 Corinthians 5:5, which states:
“…deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.”
To me, this seems to contradict eternal security because it seems to state that if this man does not repent, his spirit would not be saved. Paul sounds like he is saying that in order for this man to keep his salvation, he has to have his flesh destroyed and then repent. If this man’s spirit is already saved, then why does he have to be delivered to Satan and have his flesh destroyed in order to keep his salvation? I understand why he would need to have this done for fellowship purposes, but why for salvation purposes?
Is this how you read this verse? Have you done any research on this verse? I have looked all over the internet for a deeper understanding of this verse and cannot find it.
Thank you for your wonderful site.
My question is, believing that Jesus Christ died to save us from our sins ( I understand that to be the punishment from our sins – correct me if I’m wrong) and that as we accept Him we are new creatures in Christ – then why do we still have this sin nature? 2 Corinthians 5:17 “Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature; old things are passed away; and behold all things are become new.”
I understand that we live in a fallen world but if our old sin nature is not removed when we become new creatures in Christ, then what does this verse mean? How literal are we to take it? Or do we just overlook it when we, as believers, sin, which we all do? It seems we like to rationalize our sinning by blaming it on our old sin nature – but if all things are new, then what? Some insight on interpreting this verse would be helpful.
I was fascinated by your explanation about the genealogy of Joseph and Mary both from the same Royal bloodline. I believe that very few people know about this that Joseph is a Prince by birth and Mary is a Princess by birth both from the bloodline of King David.
I have something in my mind that maybe you can help explain to me. Did Adam reach the fourth generation or his fourth great grandson? Or probably Noah?