Re: No More Sea. I have a question on the whole idea of a water vapor canopy. Where did you come up with this idea? It sounds plausible but did it come from the Word or another place?

If the fullness of the Gentiles being saved must arrive before the rapture occurs, what about all the people that are continually being born that need to be saved, how could the gentile number ever be final?

I’ve enjoyed your website immensely, and look forward to new articles each day. In your “Revelation Times” articles, I noted in the “hail judgment” in Revelation 16, that “since stoning is the Biblical penalty for blasphemy, The Lord sends 100 pound hailstones to the Earth in judgment, and to prepare it for when Christ returns.” I’ve noted other authors echo this as well.

Being involved with severe weather operations in Arkansas, I noted that in 2010, there was a hailstone in South Dakota, that set a record for the United States … 8 inches in diameter, 19 inches in circumference, and nearly 2 pounds. The stones in Rev. 16 would be 50 times that size. The Bible is silent on how long it will last, but if a hailstorm of that magnitude lasted more than a few minutes, it would pretty much destroy anything left standing, and flatten the topography of the Earth in preparation for Christ’s Second Coming. Is that the way you see it?

Thank you so much for helping me to learn the Word. My question is from Revelation 6:6 dealing with last part, “and see thou hurt not the oil and the wine.” I’m sure it must mean more than a literal meaning.

My question comes from Revelation 21 and 22. I’m wondering if something has been lost in translation. Rev. 21:1 says “. . . there was no longer any sea.”, the earth having been restored. Rev. 22, drawing on Ezekiel and Zechariah, indicates the River of Life flowing to the Mediterranean in the west and Dead Sea in the east. Would you please help me understand how the sea is gone yet seems to exist during the Millennium?

It seems like you have made a case that marriage or divorce need only consist of an internal attitude of heart among the parties in a coupling, so that any committed couple would become divorced in God’s sight at the point where they no longer wanted to be married, even if it were an unspoken feeling. Do I have this right? If so, then since this state of affairs can develop involuntarily over time in spite of the best intentions, how can such an ‘internal’ divorce ever be considered a sin? There is no act of violation, but only a falling out of love.

In your answer to the question “Sin In The Millennium?” you said “Lately I’ve had the suspicion that a third testament may emerge for the Millennial Age, just like a second one emerged for the Church Age. There are simply too many unanswered questions.” In light of Rev. 22:18 (“If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues”, etc.) would it not be correct to believe that the Holy Scripture is pretty much complete in its fullness? And since we will have the King Jesus reign with humankind on Earth during the Millennium, will the Lord’s physical presence not be enough to provide all the answers to people’s questions?

I have been reading about His prayer and how we can pray it for ourselves – for every area of our life, but especially concerning spiritual matters to further the Lord’s work. What is your opinion about it and do you think we can pray it for our family members too? Blessings to you.

My question is about the passage in Matthew 2:15 that stated that when Joseph took Mary and Jesus out of Egypt after Herod died it was a fulfillment of the prophecy in Hosea 11:1. However, it seems like that is really out of context. Was that recognized prior to the birth of Christ as a Messianic Prophecy? How was that a fulfillment of prophecy?

Who is the Prophet mentioned in John 1:21? I always thought that the Prophet was Jesus Christ but why would they ask John that if he was the Christ and the Prophet as if they were two separate people? Can you show me some passages that show Jesus is also the Prophet?