Is there any translation, Greek or Hebrew, that would show that Jesus ever referred to God as “Papa”? I have recently been told by a retired minister that Jesus called God “Papa”. He attends the church that I used to go to. This same minister is also telling me that “The Shack” is a good book, “good” theology. However, I had read an article on line that described this book as promoting false doctrine.

I have long believed what you are saying here too, that our bodies will vanish and be transformed. But I have also long wondered how those left on earth are going to explain it away that millions of people just vanished from the face of the earth, especially with there being so much information on rapture. If our bodies were left, as if all those who were raptured had just died, it would be much easier for the secular world to explain away the rapture and prevent panic, rebellion or whatever else, don’t you think? How do you THINK that the world can explain away the instantaneous disappearance of millions from the face of the earth, in a believable way?

Is lilith or lilin mentioned anywhere in the Bible? if so can you tell me where to look?

I was reading an article about tithing. I’d like to know what you think about it. The goal of the article was to show that tithing is not a NT requirement, although the writer did make clear Christians should give generously, willingly, and joyfully to the Kingdom but that the OT tithe looked completely different then and what it has become was invented by man and that we are not obligated to tithe 10% but only what we are able to give.

My question is why you don’t write about the gap between the Rapture and the start of they 7 year Tribulation Period taking into consideration Psalm 83 and Obadiah, Verse 18? (maybe you have and I didn’t see it) I firmly believe that Israel will destroy the Arab countries surrounding Israel (perhaps before or shortly after the Rapture); therefore, why aren’t those same Arab nations mentioned in Psalm 83 mentioned in the Magog War of Ezekiel 38 and 39? They aren’t.

It appears that Israel will expand its borders upon destroying these Arab nations surrounding them, and in doing so, will gain security and have no walled villages. Geographically speaking, Israel today has no security and no unwalled villages. That is very obvious! Therefore, the Magog War won’t occur until later, and prior to the middle of the Tribulation.

Another point that I wish to comment on is that after the Magog War it will take Israel 7 years to burn the enemies weapons – and we know that 2/3 of Israelis will die and the 1/3 remnant will flee perhaps to the Red Rose city of Petra in Jordan. Therefore, it would appear that if Israel is going to burn their enemies weapons for 7 years, then it would have to be prior to the middle of the Tribulation Period. They have to be there in Israel to carry that burning of weapons out. Thus the gap would have to be at least 3 1/2 yrs and longer.

I see this is one of your top ten topics. Without even using the book of Hebrews-which you expounded on well-I see other passages from the Holy Bible which make me question your doctrine.

Matthew 5:13. The Lord Jesus compares and calls believers the salt of the earth that if it loses its saltiness; it will be cast out and trodden under the feet of man. This sounds like the loss of salvation.

1 Timothy 5:12 speaks of young Christian widows having damnation for casting off their first faith. And this was just for getting remarried. Were we not designed and made for human companionship? Even Adam in his sinless state found no helper for him. God said “It is not good for man to be alone”. And if it was for the widows-why? Did these Christian widows lose their salvation?

2 Timothy 1 :18 Why was Paul concerned that Onesiphorus would find mercy of the Lord in that day? Didn’t the apostle Paul believe his Christian friend was eternally secure? Why was scripture used to worry about his potential mercy?

The more I read your responses to our questions the more I realize that it is of the One and Only (Father, Son and Holy Spirit) !

My question; Sometime back one of the Christian stations had a scholar that is learned in the ways of Islam. He is a Christian now and believe that he fears the Lord. He brought up the Greek word “chlorous” from Rev. 6:8. It always means green except there. Why is it that in Rev. 6 it is translated as “pale” which does seem not to fit.

He says that the 4 horsemen actually represents 4 reigns through out the ages and not plagues and that the word green actually means the endtime movement of Hamas, for “green” is their domineering color. Could it be that their is something to this? Somehow, could their be something more concerning the 4 horsemen that has been hidden until this age? If this is wrong thinking or interpitation I do want to know, I too fear the Lord and am scared at times of being led astray.

Your site and articles are a blessing. Can you tell me what the seven thunders of Revelation 10:4 mean? And why are they sealed? Could this possibly relate to the sealing of the words of Daniel? Thanks so much for all your inspiration.

Wondering what your thoughts are on the subject of Christians making covenants? An increasing number of bible studies and christian groups are asking participants to sign covenants agreeing to whatever is required by the course, or to certain obligations within the group. I feel uncomfortable being asked to do so. Wondering if you have addressed this subject in your writings? Thanks!

I had a thought the other day, in Daniel 7, verse 25 specifically, it talks about the Anti Christ thinking to change the times and the law. Is this saying he is trying to change the calendar? and international laws? I find this interesting since all this hype about the mayan calendar ending in 2012, and it appears that we are heading to a one world government, just something I have been thinking about, but I want to clarify what Daniel is saying exactly. Thanks so much!